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The Error of Infant Baptism PDF Print E-mail
Written by Rey   
Thursday, 14 July 2005

Baptizing infants. Why is it done? Is it Biblical? Does it matter? Jollyblogger did a series on it some time ago and I carefully avoided speaking about the subject so as not to become a bandwagon-jumper. Currently dealing with baptism I am brought to the point to discuss this matter that many Christians, both Protestant and Catholic, hold dear.

Before I start, note that I will be resolutely standing against years of church history just as I have done with the Calvinist doctrine. This would be the time for those of you that have a problem with such defiance to look elsewhere.

There are several stances on infant baptism (paedobaptism). One is that it is the preliminary sacrament that must be accomplished to assure saving grace. In this school of thought the parent professes faith for the child—in outright contrary to Scripture and the Gospel. If anything this series on baptism has shown that baptism by water does nothing for a person and salvation is a work of God alone made available through personal faith (or trust) on the only one who can save.

The Protestant Paedobaptist Position (say that 3 times fast)
Some Protestants view baptism (and therefore paedobaptism) as a symbol of the covenantal community. A paedobaptist would look to the historical Jewish circumcision as a justification for his position. Ever since God made a covenant with Abraham (Gen 17), there was circumcision in Jewish households. The mandate did not save the individual nor did it promise to make the individual a true follower of the Law—it would demarcate that member as part of the covenantal community. A paedobaptist would then probably solidify his position by showing us where Paul speaks of the gentile fulfilling the role of the Jew (Roman 2:27-29). He would also point to Hebrews saying that believers are part of a new and better covenant. In place of circumcision, which Galatians speaks so vehemently against they might say, there is now baptism that must be done by those who believe. But as in the Old Covenant, the whole house would be circumcised then in the New Covenant, the whole house must be baptized. Support for this baptism as being a covenantal sign would be the house baptisms of Acts and Corinthians and the Romans 11 passage of gentiles being grafted into the vine. Lastly, some superficial support would be found in Col 2 circumcision not with hands and the mentioning of baptism.

The paedobaptist would explain that this is a sign that the family is being raised behind the covenantal walls demarcated by the fellowship in Christ of the believers in the house. The children in that house are acknowledged as sanctified by the believers, and although not apparently saved, they have been set-apart for some blessing to be part of that community.

I say not apparently because there are some forms of Protestant paedobaptism that sprinkle the child as a symbol of faith that they are baptizing one of God’s own elect. They readily acknowledge that baptism does not save but they’ll go onto show how the New Covenant is just as conditional as the Old Covenant. That the elect are not shown by their belief but by their proclaimed faith, continued belief and a life of covenant keeping. In the Last Day, they will be confirmed by God as being Elect so when an infant is baptized it is a symbol of the believer’s faith in stating that “yes, this child is Elect” and “I am obeying God to prove my election.”

Why Infant Baptism is Wrong
The picture of baptism has several illustrative aspects (see previous posts). As a memorial illustration it looks back to the recipient of baptism dying in Christ and being risen in Him (Rom 6). To do so to an infant who can’t possibly confess their faith is a (excuse the term) watering down of the symbol. These infants are being made to take part in the symbol of a spiritual reality when there can’t even be evidence of the spiritual reality. If we don’t grab and baptize adults who step through the doors of our churches because we believe that they are elect even though they have never said anything we shouldn’t do so to infants.

As an identifying illustration (1 Peter 3), the baptized stands welcoming persecution in light of his public confession of a good conscience. This person now states openly that they are willing to suffer for good rather than stay quiet and get by all right. By baptizing an infant as part of this identification, we are illustratively making the proclamation that this infant is to welcome persecution for Christ. Now, we wouldn’t (or shouldn’t) go into a Muslim nation and dip them in water, baptizing them and stating that they are identifying with Christ and stand behind Him so why would we do it to an infant?

As a unifying illustration as Paul explains in Ephesians 4, it would be a picture that we have all as believers been baptized in Christ. By baptizing an infant as part of this unifying illustration, we are saying that this person has been regenerated as much as those who are believers as adults. As such we might as well give them bread and wine to remember to the Lord, which is explicitly given for believers to remember Christ. We should then also be allowed to go into our jobs, baptize people to have them to be united with us in the Body of Christ as regenerate sans confession.

If baptism is sign of the parent’s faith that the infant is Elect and part of the covenantal community then there is as much justification for baptizing anyone we speak to as long as we believe that they are really elect. Jeremy actually makes some really good points that allow for baptizing the dead in light of baptizing infants.

Regarding the sign of a covenantal community* the Scriptures speak of the sign of the New Covenant as the wine and the cup, reflecting Christ’s blood shed for us (1 Cor 11). The sign of the New Covenant is never stated as being the baptism by water and in fact, it is never stated as defining a covenantal community as spoken of in the Old Testament. The covenant in the Old Testament was specifically given to the Jewish nation and they agreed to its tenets as a people (Exo 19;Ex 24) . The Covenant given by God and mediated by Christ was completed of His own sovereign power with no say from men. The notion that the New Covenant is conditional is contrary to Scriptures and I am certainly surprised when some devout Calvinists state as much. The New Covenant is God writing on the hearts of men, not men proving that God has written in their hearts. True, they will come into that they will come into the benefits of that Covenant by faith and exemplify the truth of the matter in their maturing lives, but this is also why we shouldn’t be professing this sealing on an infant. Besides the fact that the infant can’t tell her right hand from her left, how much less will she understand God’s salvation?

Also, if the New Covenant were to be almost a better addendum to the Old Covenant (as if believers are the fulfillment of Abraham's covenant) where certain things are supposedly replaced (Sunday for the Sabbath-false; Baptism for Circumcision-false) then it would stand to reason that there would be more restrictions on baptism than paedobaptists are enforcing. The Old Covenant would specify that only males are circumcised on the 8th of the month but paedobaptism offers no restrictions.

Lastly the House baptisms spoken of in Acts and Corinthians in no way prove that infants were baptized in those situations. That’s an argument from silence and in many cases, a logical stretch. In Lydia’s case, a businesswoman about two hundred or so miles from home, I would seriously doubt she was carrying an infant about on her business trip. In Cornelius’ case I would seriously doubt that the infants in the house (if there were any) were also filled with the Holy Spirit and began prophesying. Plus, just because you have a house and a family doesn’t mean that there’s an infant at home.

So finally, infant baptism merely muddies the water on what baptism signifies, is based on false assumptions regarding the Covenant of God and is textually a stretch to establish from Scriptures. To perform the sign as a symbol of the parents dedication still waters down the true significance of the sign, and in those cases I would suggest that parents bring the baby up before the congregation and pray for the parents and the child. This would be an effective public dedication by the parents and in no way besmirches what God has established in the Scriptures for the elect.

-r-

The Full Series
1. Baptism Necessary for Salvation?
2. One Baptism Versus the Many?
3. Baptism and Big Problems
4. Baptismal Regeneration (Acts 2:28)
5. Deluge of Baptism Questions (Acts 1-22)
6. Baptism and Romans (Rom 6:1-11)
7. Noah and Baptism (2 Peter 3:20,21)
8. Paul On Baptism (1 Cor 1:14-18)
9. The Error of Infant Baptism
10. Remember Your Baptism (Rom 6:1-11)
Related
Russ On Baptism
Baptism of Linkage

*I could not go on a long discussion regarding the doctrine of Covenants or showing the differences thereof. Jollyblogger placed the burden of proof on those of us who say there is a difference but that goes beyond the scope of this article already 500 words too long.


Rey
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written by Doug, July 14, 2005
Oh great. Now I have something in common with the biggest heretic in the blogosphere...

Great post, Rey! The section of that catechism doesn't have anything that has "convicted" me that infant baptism is right. I just don't see enough of a connection between it and circumcision.
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written by Rey, July 15, 2005
heh heh. Step right in...the heresy feels just fine smilies/smiley.gif

I personally wonder how someone does get into doing it. Is it because they did it in their church and were used to it and then justify the position later or do they actually become convicted of it by reading the catechism and by studying Covenant theology: which sounds like a stretch. I saw some quotes from a bunch of authors who still practiced it but didn't think it was Biblical...I should find those things...
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written by brian, July 15, 2005
Good post Rey. Especially since I agree with it smilies/smiley.gif .

The whole baptism/circumcision thing never made any sense to me either. I mean, there is just nothing in scripture which says that one is a replcement for the other. It all has to be inferred.

Another thing which I just don't quite get are the "blessings" of being part of the "covenant family" and being brought into that family by baptism. I mean, is an infant in a Presbyterian household somehow more blessed than one in a Nazarene household? And if so, how?

Keep the heresy coming, Rey! Next thing you know you'll be saying there's nothing special about the Sabbath... :laugh:
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written by Rey, July 15, 2005
I would like some Presbyterian to actual interact with some of these things instead of just stating that it is a logical deduction from the Confession and a Covenant theology. Maybe we can fetch one somewhere.
Keep the heresy coming, Rey! Next thing you know you'll be saying there's nothing special about the Sabbath...

uh...oh... :laugh:
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written by david, July 17, 2005
How does a person get into practicing infant baptism? Well, I was born Lutheran, that's how I got it. I think that is usually the case. However, I know Presbyterians who honestly believe in covenant baptism based on exegesis. I believe their exegesis is faulty, but nevertheless, they come by it honestly. Then there's Dr. C. Matthew McMahon of A Puritan's Mind, who has converted from credobaptism to paedobaptism, and has an excellent website of puritan writings. Somewhere on his site you can find his reasoning. I can't find it right now, but it's there.
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written by Shane, July 17, 2005
Well done my friend. Another problem with claiming baptism for circumcision is that Sha'ul never once says to not get circumcised. Every place it is addresed, he is addressing those that say it is salvational, not the commandment itself. In fact, he strongly rebukes them saying he wishes they would go all the way and cut themselves off. He in fact performs a circumcision. (Interesting that there is circucision before The Law as sign unto His people, our ancestors by grating. Rom. 11)

Infant baptism is simply false and based on blaphemous "binding and loosing" of Law versus man-made traditions as are all "sacraments". We have Scripture/Torah, we do not need cathecisms made up by the churches.

I think I just out "heretic'ed" you!

:laugh:
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written by Doug, July 17, 2005
I found it here. I haven't read it yet, though.
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written by Rey, July 17, 2005
Thanks for the link and the article brothers. I just read it and he pretty much went down that route of making a believer and his house entering into a covenant community sort of deal. It's fascinating because I have an inkling how their theology may be affecting their exegesis but I can't quite put my finger on it. Thanks for the article. I'm amazed that he actually went credo to paedo!

Brother Shane, I agree that Paul never said to get circumcised. Heck, Luke purposefully puts the situation in Acts 15 in near locale to Timothy's circumcision for a specific purpose. I think it is interesting to look at that and also to look at Romans 14 to see some interesting correlations.

I'll further your Torah as Scripture by saying we also have Paul and Peter and John--we do not need catechisms or creeds made up by churches or councils.

Now our heresy is in comfy proximity. B)
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written by shane, July 17, 2005
I see we completely agree about the apostles and Scripture and their role. We seem to completely agree also on what we don't need!

I probably didn't make myself clear about the circumcision. Sha'ul never gives a ruling on getting circumcised or not getting circumcised. He could not, because binding and loosing is not the power to abrogate commandments. He debunks the premise that it is salvational. Circumcision is required for Passover/Communion. At the minimum, of the heart. Late in Acts (25 I think?), he says that he kept the Torah all of his life.. even after the cross.

I'm not sure I am getting what you are saying about Timothy and Acts 15 together, but sometimes I am slow. smilies/smiley.gif

Yes, we indeed are heretics of equality. Equal oppurtunity offender?
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written by brian, July 17, 2005
Circumcision is required for Passover/Communion. At the minimum, of the heart. Late in Acts (25 I think?), he says that he kept the Torah all of his life.. even after the cross.


Shane,

Are you saying that physical circumcision, while not absolutely reqired, would be better in some respect? If so, how?

And the verse in Acts 25, is it verse 8? - "Paul argued in his defense, 'Neither against the law of the Jews, nor against the temple, nor against Caesar have I committed any offense.'"

Did he keep the cermonial part of the Law as well? If so, was it out of requirement or for some other reason?

Because if he didn't keep it, then he has something else in mind oter than perfect law keeping when he says he didn't commit any offense aginst the Law of the Jews.

If he did keep it out of requirement, then why aren't we keeping it as well?

If he kept it out of preference, then you can't really point to any examples of Paul's law-keeping as binding on us.

Clear as mud? smilies/smiley.gif
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written by Shane, July 18, 2005
You jammed a lot of questions in there brother!

I think circumcision is a commandment just like, thou shalt not murder or love thy neighbor. I know there are requirements for conversion and it was physical. I do believe in a circumcised heart. I think for converts, the best place to start is Acts 15. Taking on all of the Torah for salvation is a the "yoke of burden" that should not be placed on them. Torah was never for salvation. The truly contrite heart will seek out His Law of liberty. Circumcision is something I am still exploring. Erik is well versed on that topic.

As for, "The Law of the Jews", I am not sure what that is? All of the commandments (declogue included) were given to the Jews and sprinkled with blood. Yet even before that, Joseph knew adultery was sin, Avraham stopped worshipping idols, Noach knew clean and unclean, Cain and Abel sacrificed. Terms like ceremonial, are made in translations and catechisms. Scripture "mingles" commandments, but, I do concede such referneces as catoegorizing simply for discussion.

My point being, it is His Law. David meditated on His statues, not the Jewish statues. His statues are perfect and as you must be sick of hearing me say, "Sabbath was made for man".

What I feel is a more literal translation is:
while Sha’ul said in his own defence, “Neither against the Torah of the Yuhedim nor against the Set-apart Place, nor against Caesar did I commit any sin.”


I believe Sha'ul kept all of His Sabbaths (Passover, weekly, etc.) as did Yeshua, even in His death and resurrection. (Died before Sabbath, rested, raised after Sabbath) The Feasts have meaning and application after the cross. Many are told that they pointed to the cross only and simply accept it without ever experiencing one. (I've done that also in the past)

It's hard to answer if he kept them out of "requirement". I believe they are commandments and I believe Sha'ul loved Adonai. I believe he kept them for the same reasons Avraham, Moshe, etc. did. Faith and because they knew Elohim. 1 John 5 is a great explanation.

We have a choice whom we will follow. I do not believe we can claim to know Adonai then murder, etc. By that example, I believe His Sabbaths that He commanded forever, are testament of our Master. This is why I personally do not observe Easter, generally celebrated by eating unclean meat. I do as Yeshua commanded, "Do this in rememberance of me", Pesach (Passover).

I'm not sure how to answer the question about why we don't keep it. I don't keep it because I am still a sinner. But refering to my intent, I feel that I and many others do want to keep Torah while still believing in Yeshua's sacrifice and Adonai's grace. Macion is the one that started the concept that they were at odds. But, to answer directly, if you'll forgive, Rome is the reason why many do not keep Torah. My question is, why would one not want to keep His Law?

Other than bias translations, I am not sure where in Scripture the reference of Law changed from Torah to Ten Commandments. Much of the NT is merely quoting OT and Torah. I am going to plug my site again, but examples of anti-Semitic translating are explored in a post I wrote called The DaVinity Code.

I keeping waiting for the post where I have offended, I hope this is not that one.

I hope that I hit your questions.

Shalom
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written by Rey, July 18, 2005
Loving the conversation guys. Just wanted to drop in this bit:
I'm not sure I am getting what you are saying about Timothy and Acts 15 together, but sometimes I am slow. smilies/smiley.gif


Luke seems to organize all his material in sets to prove his points. Acts 15:1 is definitely about people going around saying that someone has to be circumcised to be saved.

Acts 16:3 all of a sudden has Paul circumcising a Jew/Gentile mix. Why did Paul do it? Because the Jews that were in those partsӔ. A matter of consciencenot his own, but of those that he planned to preach the gospel to with young Timothy. Because they all knew that TimŒs father was Greek. Huge when we get to Romans 14, written not only to Gentile Romans but to Those Who Are in Rome: I would take that to include Jew and Gentile. The Entire book of Romans touches on the theme of Jew and Gentile and in 14 we get the notion of how they are to live with each other without describing who is strong or who is weak.
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written by Philthreten, July 18, 2005
Great post Rey!! I think an often overlooked aspect of the correlation between circumcision and baptism is that the covenents that were sealed with circumcision were never salvation based. Thus it is not an argument to say 'All the Jews (males at least) were circumcised but they weren't all believers in God.' The statement is true but misses the point of the circumcision. It is the sealing of a covenant between God and the Jewish people to fulfill certain promises through them - which He has done, continues to, and will do. But to state that the symbolism of baptism (becoming part of the New Covenent which is a covenant of salvation) is the same or similar to circumcision (a seal on covenents made to the physical descendents of Abraham) is to misunderstand the initial covenents.
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written by Shane, July 18, 2005
Huge when we get to Romans 14, written not only to Gentile Romans but to Those Who Are in Rome


I agree that it was written to more than the Gentiles, but the decisions written as a starting point were I feel were clearly for the Gentile. Moreover, it was noted that they would learn Torah on Sabbath! If it Torah (Law of Moses) was not "binding" on Gentiles why learn it? Why go on Sabbath?

Act 15:19 “Therefore I judge that we should not trouble those from among the gentiles who are turning to Elohim, but that we write to them to abstain from the defilements of idols, and from whoring, and from what is strangled, and from blood. “For from ancient generations Mosheh has, in every city, those proclaiming him – being read in the congregations every Sabbath.”


The problem overall is one of dispensation. Yeshua gave full meaning to the statues. The problem with the teaching that these expansions were replacements is that it simply can't be consistent. Replacement theology teaches that the heartfelt application (spiritual circumcision) takes the place of the physical (physical circumcision). Even reading what I just wrote, one may be thinking, "exactly"! But that just begins an inconsistancy which I will attempt to point out.

The heart application of not hating in your heart will cause you to WANT to do the physical application of not murdering. To WANT to obey His will which IS His Torah. (quoted from constantly by Yeshua, Sha'ul, Kefa, Yochannon, Ya'akov (better rendered Jacob, not James), etc.)

Now let's look at the opposite: The heart application of loving the Lord your God or remembering The Sabbath, you will not have to (or want to) do the physical of keeping the Sabbath? Or if I am not angry in my heart when I physically murder, then the physical is made void?

It's obvious that does not make sense. But rather, by loving Him in the heart you will WANT to love Him in the physical by remembering His set-apart day and in the physical by not murdering.

It could be said that by keeping His Torah out of love I could be "a man after God's own heart" as David was who meditated on His Torah and LOVED His statutes.

1Jo 5:3 For this is the love for Elohim, that we guard His commands, and His commands are not heavy


It works with any commandment. It draws the focus on the heart by which you do(or do not do) the physical. The physical application of the Law without the heart will only serve as a schoolmaster to show you that you need a heart change... a circumcision of the heart.

The Torah is written in our hearts. Torah keeping without love leads only to disobedience.

Shalom!
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written by Shane, July 18, 2005
If you could correct that Yesuah to Yeshua, I would be grateful! Doh!
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written by Rey, July 18, 2005
The James bit kinda annoys me. It should've been Jacob.
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written by brian, July 19, 2005
Jollyblogger is talking about infant baptism :

http://jollyblogger.typepad.com/jollyblogger/2005/07/another_post_on.html
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written by Rey, July 19, 2005
uh-oh...

thanks brother Brian.
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written by Rey, July 19, 2005
uh-oh...

thanks brother Brian.
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